Which Article empowers the Parliament to make laws on any matter in the State List if a Proclamation of Emergency is in operation? (A) Article 249 (B) Article 250 (C) Article 251 (D) Article 252 Answer: (B)
Which of the following languages was added to the Eighth Schedule by the 92nd Amendment Act? (A) Bodo (B) Dogri (C) Maithili (D) All of the above Answer: (D)
Which of the following Articles deals with the Election Commission? (A) Article 320 (B) Article 324 (C) Article 326 (D) Article 328 Answer: (B)
Who among the following has the power to decide whether a Bill is a Money Bill or not? (A) President (B) Finance Minister (C) Prime Minister (D) Speaker of Lok Sabha Answer: (D)
What is the maximum permissible strength of the Rajya Sabha? (A) 245 (B) 250 (C) 260 (D) 275 Answer: (B)
The 86th Amendment Act deals with which of the following rights? (A) Right to Property (B) Right to Education (C) Right to Information (D) Right to Food Answer: (B)
Which Article of the Constitution empowers the High Courts to issue writs? (A) Article 226 (B) Article 227 (C) Article 228 (D) Article 229 Answer: (A)
Which Article guarantees the right to freedom of religion? (A) Article 23 (B) Article 25 (C) Article 27 (D) Article 29 Answer: (B)
Which Committee is responsible for examining the estimates of expenditure of the Government of India? (A) Estimates Committee (B) Public Accounts Committee (C) Committee on Public Undertakings (D) Ethics Committee Answer: (A)
The Election Commission of India is responsible for conducting elections to – (A) Parliament (B) State Legislatures (C) Offices of the President and Vice-President (D) All of the above Answer: (D)
In the case of conflict between the Centre and State laws on a subject in the Concurrent List, which law prevails? (A) State law (B) Centre law (C) Judiciary’s interpretation (D) President’s decision Answer: (B)
Which Amendment removed the Right to Property from the list of Fundamental Rights? (A) 42nd (B) 44th (C) 52nd (D) 61st Answer: (B)
The President’s rule is imposed under which Article? (A) Article 352 (B) Article 356 (C) Article 360 (D) Article 365 Answer: (B)
Which of the following is NOT a method of constitutional amendment? (A) By simple majority (B) By special majority (C) By referendum (D) By special majority with state ratification Answer: (C)
The term ‘Constitutional Emergency’ is associated with – (A) Article 352 (B) Article 356 (C) Article 360 (D) Article 368 Answer: (B)
Who acts as the ex-officio Chairman of the Rajya Sabha? (A) Speaker (B) Prime Minister (C) Vice-President (D) President Answer: (C)
The final authority to interpret the Constitution lies with – (A) Supreme Court (B) Parliament (C) President (D) Attorney General Answer: (A)
Which Article deals with the power of the President to grant pardon? (A) Article 72 (B) Article 74 (C) Article 75 (D) Article 76 Answer: (A)
Which part of the Constitution deals with the Amendment of the Constitution? (A) Part XIX (B) Part XX (C) Part XXI (D) Part XXII Answer: (B)
The right to equality before law is guaranteed under – (A) Article 13 (B) Article 14 (C) Article 15 (D) Article 16 Answer: (B)
Which Article of the Constitution provides for a Finance Commission? (A) Article 280 (B) Article 282 (C) Article 284 (D) Article 288 Answer: (A)
The term ‘secular’ in the Indian Constitution implies – (A) Anti-religion (B) Equal treatment of all religions (C) Promotion of a single religion (D) Complete religious freedom without restrictions Answer: (B)
In which part of the Constitution are Fundamental Duties mentioned? (A) Part III (B) Part IV (C) Part IVA (D) Part V Answer: (C)
Which of the following is NOT a feature of the Indian Constitution? (A) Parliamentary form of government (B) Presidential system (C) Secularism (D) Federal structure Answer: (B)
Which schedule of the Constitution deals with anti-defection? (A) 8th Schedule (B) 9th Schedule (C) 10th Schedule (D) 11th Schedule Answer: (C)
Who decides the salary and service conditions of the Chief Election Commissioner? (A) President (B) Parliament (C) Prime Minister (D) Election Commission itself Answer: (B)
What is the tenure of the members of the Rajya Sabha? (A) 4 years (B) 5 years (C) 6 years (D) 7 years Answer: (C)
Which authority decides disputes regarding the election of the President and Vice-President? (A) Parliament (B) Supreme Court (C) Election Commission (D) Cabinet Answer: (B)
The concept of Directive Principles of State Policy was borrowed from – (A) USA (B) Ireland (C) UK (D) USSR Answer: (B)
Which Fundamental Right is protected even during Emergency? (A) Article 19 (B) Article 20 (C) Article 21 (D) Both B and C Answer: (D)
Which committee recommended the abolition of the Planning Commission? (A) Narsimham Committee (B) Rangarajan Committee (C) Bibek Debroy Committee (D) None – it was a decision of the Union Government Answer: (D)
The provision for a National Emergency is found in – (A) Article 352 (B) Article 356 (C) Article 360 (D) Article 368 Answer: (A)
Which of the following Articles cannot be suspended during Emergency? (A) Article 14 (B) Article 20 (C) Article 21 (D) Both B and C Answer: (D)
The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was inspired by – (A) French Constitution (B) Irish Constitution (C) American Constitution (D) British Constitution Answer: (C)
The ‘Doctrine of Pleasure’ is applicable to – (A) Judges (B) Civil Servants (C) Ministers (D) Members of Parliament Answer: (B)
Who among the following presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament? (A) President (B) Vice-President (C) Speaker of Lok Sabha (D) Prime Minister Answer: (C)
The system of parliamentary democracy in India is borrowed from – (A) USA (B) Canada (C) UK (D) Australia Answer: (C)
Who was the first woman judge of the Supreme Court? (A) Fathima Beevi (B) Leila Seth (C) Ruma Pal (D) Indu Malhotra Answer: (A)
What is the maximum strength of the Lok Sabha as per the Constitution? (A) 542 (B) 543 (C) 545 (D) 552 Answer: (D)
The original jurisdiction of the Supreme Court includes – (A) Disputes between Union and States (B) Election of President (C) Matters of fundamental rights (D) Appeals from High Court Answer: (A)
What is the minimum age to contest elections to the Rajya Sabha? (A) 25 years (B) 30 years (C) 35 years (D) 40 years Answer: (B)
Which authority allocates symbols to political parties in elections? (A) Election Commission (B) President (C) Parliament (D) Supreme Court Answer: (A)
What is the minimum number of judges required for a Constitutional Bench? (A) 3 (B) 5 (C) 7 (D) 9 Answer: (B)
In which year was the first general election held in India? (A) 1947 (B) 1950 (C) 1951–52 (D) 1955 Answer: (C)
Which of the following is not a writ? (A) Prohibition (B) Habeas Corpus (C) Injunction (D) Mandamus Answer: (C)
What is the tenure of the members of a Municipal Corporation? (A) 3 years (B) 4 years (C) 5 years (D) 6 years Answer: (C)
Which schedule of the Constitution deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha? (A) Second (B) Fourth (C) Fifth (D) Sixth Answer: (B)
What is the minimum age to become the President of India? (A) 25 (B) 30 (C) 35 (D) 40 Answer: (C)
Which Article allows the President to appoint a Commission to examine the condition of backward classes? (A) Article 335 (B) Article 340 (C) Article 342 (D) Article 345 Answer: (B)