The number of subjects in the Union List is –
(A) 61
(B) 97
(C) 99
(D) 100
Answer: (B)

Which Article of the Constitution defines the Union territories?
(A) Article 1
(B) Article 2
(C) Article 3
(D) Article 4
Answer: (A)

Which amendment made the right to education a part of the Right to Life?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 86th
(D) 93rd
Answer: (C)

How many members are nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
(A) 10
(B) 12
(C) 14
(D) 15
Answer: (B)

The first state in India to become a ‘Digital State’ was –
(A) Gujarat
(B) Kerala
(C) Maharashtra
(D) Karnataka
Answer: (B)

Which of the following amendments gave constitutional status to municipalities?
(A) 72nd
(B) 73rd
(C) 74th
(D) 75th
Answer: (C)

Which Fundamental Right was described by Dr. B.R. Ambedkar as the ‘heart and soul’ of the Constitution?
(A) Right to Equality
(B) Right to Freedom
(C) Right to Constitutional Remedies
(D) Right to Religion
Answer: (C)

The President must consult whom before appointing a judge to the Supreme Court?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Vice-President
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (B)

Which part of the Constitution deals with Tribunals?
(A) Part XIII
(B) Part XIV
(C) Part XIVA
(D) Part XV
Answer: (C)

Which state has a unicameral legislature?
(A) Bihar
(B) Maharashtra
(C) Uttar Pradesh
(D) Kerala
Answer: (D)

Which of the following is an eligibility condition for Vice-President of India?
(A) Must be a member of Parliament
(B) Should be over 25 years
(C) Should be qualified to be a Rajya Sabha member
(D) Should be a government servant
Answer: (C)

The maximum strength of the Legislative Council is –
(A) 1/2 of Assembly
(B) 1/3 of Assembly
(C) 1/4 of Assembly
(D) 1/5 of Assembly
Answer: (B)

Which article empowers the Parliament to make laws for implementing international agreements?
(A) Article 249
(B) Article 250
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 254
Answer: (C)

What is the minimum age for contesting elections to the Lok Sabha?
(A) 18 years
(B) 21 years
(C) 25 years
(D) 30 years
Answer: (C)

How many times has the National Emergency been declared in India?
(A) Once
(B) Twice
(C) Thrice
(D) Four times
Answer: (C)

Which schedule deals with allocation of seats in Rajya Sabha?
(A) First Schedule
(B) Second Schedule
(C) Third Schedule
(D) Fourth Schedule
Answer: (D)

Which commission is responsible for delimitation of constituencies?
(A) Planning Commission
(B) Election Commission
(C) Delimitation Commission
(D) Finance Commission
Answer: (C)

The State Election Commission supervises elections to –
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Panchayats and Municipalities
(D) State Assemblies
Answer: (C)

Which amendment removed the right to property from the list of Fundamental Rights?
(A) 42nd
(B) 44th
(C) 52nd
(D) 61st
Answer: (B)

Which of the following is not a source of Indian Constitution?
(A) Government of India Act, 1935
(B) British Constitution
(C) Russian Constitution
(D) Swiss Constitution
Answer: (C)

In which year was the anti-defection law added to the Constitution?
(A) 1984
(B) 1985
(C) 1986
(D) 1989
Answer: (B)

Which schedule of the Indian Constitution lists the official languages?
(A) 7th
(B) 8th
(C) 9th
(D) 10th
Answer: (B)

Which Article mentions abolition of titles?
(A) Article 15
(B) Article 17
(C) Article 18
(D) Article 19
Answer: (C)

The State Human Rights Commission was established under which Act?
(A) Human Rights Act, 1991
(B) Human Rights Act, 1992
(C) Protection of Human Rights Act, 1993
(D) State Rights Protection Act, 1994
Answer: (C)

Which High Court is common to two or more states?
(A) Bombay
(B) Guwahati
(C) Kerala
(D) Delhi
Answer: (B)

The first Lok Sabha election was held in –
(A) 1947
(B) 1950
(C) 1951–52
(D) 1955
Answer: (C)

Which of the following is a special feature of the Indian Constitution?
(A) Rigid and unitary
(B) Federal with strong unitary features
(C) Unitary with federal features
(D) Completely unitary
Answer: (B)

Which article deals with disqualification on grounds of defection?
(A) Article 101
(B) Article 102
(C) Article 103
(D) Article 104
Answer: (B)

Which Article mentions the duties of the Prime Minister?
(A) Article 73
(B) Article 74
(C) Article 75
(D) Article 78
Answer: (D)

The leader of the opposition is given the status and facilities of –
(A) Cabinet Minister
(B) Minister of State
(C) Chief Justice
(D) Deputy Speaker
Answer: (A)

Which of the following can’t be dissolved?
(A) Lok Sabha
(B) Rajya Sabha
(C) Legislative Assembly
(D) Parliament
Answer: (B)

Which of the following is a quasi-judicial body?
(A) UPSC
(B) NHRC
(C) Finance Commission
(D) Planning Commission
Answer: (B)

Which commission was formed to review Centre-State relations?
(A) Mandal Commission
(B) Sarkaria Commission
(C) Shah Commission
(D) Punchhi Commission
Answer: (B)

Which act was passed to enforce the 73rd Amendment?
(A) Panchayati Raj Act
(B) Local Self-Government Act
(C) State Panchayat Act
(D) None of the above
Answer: (A)

The Governor is appointed by the –
(A) Prime Minister
(B) President
(C) Supreme Court
(D) Rajya Sabha
Answer: (B)

Which of these features is NOT borrowed from the British Constitution?
(A) Parliamentary system
(B) Rule of Law
(C) Judicial review
(D) Cabinet system
Answer: (C)

The Constitution of India was adopted on –
(A) 26th January 1950
(B) 15th August 1947
(C) 26th November 1949
(D) 30th January 1950
Answer: (C)

The maximum number of members in Legislative Assembly is fixed at –
(A) 500
(B) 525
(C) 550
(D) 600
Answer: (A)

The power of judicial review in India is enjoyed by –
(A) Supreme Court only
(B) High Courts only
(C) Both Supreme Court and High Courts
(D) President
Answer: (C)

Which Constitutional Amendment introduced Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
(A) 100th
(B) 101st
(C) 102nd
(D) 103rd
Answer: (B)

Which Article empowers the President to declare a Financial Emergency?
(A) Article 352
(B) Article 356
(C) Article 360
(D) Article 370
Answer: (C)

Which constitutional body is responsible for conducting elections?
(A) CAG
(B) Election Commission
(C) Law Commission
(D) UPSC
Answer: (B)

Which Article allows Parliament to make laws for giving effect to international agreements?
(A) Article 251
(B) Article 252
(C) Article 253
(D) Article 254
Answer: (C)

Who can remove the Governor of a state?
(A) Chief Minister
(B) President
(C) Prime Minister
(D) State Legislature
Answer: (B)

Who decides disputes regarding disqualification of MPs?
(A) President
(B) Prime Minister
(C) Speaker
(D) Election Commission
Answer: (A)

Which writ is issued to an authority to perform its duty?
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Mandamus
(D) Prohibition
Answer: (C)

Which writ is issued to prevent a lower court from exceeding its jurisdiction?
(A) Prohibition
(B) Mandamus
(C) Certiorari
(D) Quo Warranto
Answer: (A)

Who presides over the joint session of Parliament?
(A) President
(B) Vice-President
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Prime Minister
Answer: (C)

Which part of the Constitution deals with citizenship?
(A) Part I
(B) Part II
(C) Part III
(D) Part IV
Answer: (B)

Which Article allows Parliament to create new All-India Services?
(A) Article 312
(B) Article 314
(C) Article 316
(D) Article 318
Answer: (A)